Absolute Proof Of God!

SCIENCE And The BIBLE, Do They Contradict???

February 28, 2008

PART 1 The MANY WIVES QUESTION: Was it wrong..is it wrong?



WHAT ABOUT ALL THOSE WIVES & CONCUBINES IN THE OLD TESTAMENT ? WHY DID GOD "ALLOW" THIS TO GO ON ? THIS IS PART # 1 BLOWING THE LID OFF A MYTH ABOUT MOSES HAVING MORE THAN ONE WIFE!

First let's go to the New Testament and look at how "sex"was dealt with there and then go to the Old testament and see the parallels that are ONLY OBVIOUS AFTER SEEING PAUL'S VIEW OF SEXUAL MATTERS! The late Jewish scholar Robert Gordis, who had a very ecumenical view of Christianity in general, had a great distaste for Paul. He felt that Paul's disproportionate criticism of sexual sin betrayed a misunderstanding of Judaic teaching and was directly responsible for tendency of the medieval Catholic church to regard virtually all sex as "dirty" and allowable only as a vehicle for procreation. In fact, Gordis regarded the attitude of the medieval church as the very sociological root from which many of the problems in modern society (divorce, remarriage, abortion, etc.) could be traced and I agree with that assessment. But I feel that both he and the medieval church {The Catholic church} greatly misunderstood Paul because they misunderstood "JAH'S" ATTITUDE TOWARD SEX IN THE FIRST PLACE.

The more liberal Christian churches appear to have accepted Gordis' thesis completely, as one of the most obvious tendencies within that group is to regard the Pauline writings as having no authority because of its perceived "politically incorrect" views in a number of areas, including its strict condemnation of sexual sin. This challenge to Paul demands an answer--why did Paul single out this one category of human disobedience to God and make such a big issue out of it? After all, Christians can be equally accused of a great array of other sins. Surely God's grace is just as ample in one sin category as it is in any another. So, to put it simply, "What's the big deal?" Why should we listen to Paul's advice on sexual sin?

The Greek New Testament had one word that covered all the bases of sexual sin, pornaia, from which the English word "pornographic" can trace its roots. The many references to "fornication" in the King James New Testament are indicators of pornaia in the original text. The Arndt/Gingrich Greek English Lexicon of the New Testament defines pornaia as "prostitution, unchastity, fornication, of every kind of unlawful sexual intercourse." Paul used the word in 1 Cor. 5:1, 1 Cor. 6:13, 1 Cor. 6:18, 1 Cor. 10:8, 2 Cor. 12:21, Gal. 5:19, Eph. 5:3, Col. 3:5, and 1 Thess. 4:3. Pornaia is one of the Judaic sins specifically carried into the Christian sin catalogue in Acts 15:20 and 29. The word was used by Jesus in Mt. 15:19 ("For out of the heart come evil thoughts ...") and Mt. 5:32 and Mt. 19:9. In Revelation, pornaia is often used, as it was in the Old Testament, as a symbol of idol worship because the church that seeks other gods is behaving just like a wife or husband that seeks other sexual partners (see Ezek. 16, Hos. 1-3). You see,The New Testament SAYS THE SAME THING FROM A DIFFERENT ANGLE FROM THE OLD,BUT THE MESSAGE IS THE SAME!

Who was Moses Wife?

Many people teach that Moses had two wives. The teach that his first wife Zipporah, of whom bare his sons and they say that he later had another wife, an Ethiopian wife of which Miriam and Aaron spoke against. Now this may seem like a topic that really has no bearing on salvation issues, but the truth of the matter is, any lie told about the Creator's Words is an attempt to discredit His Truth.

One reason why this topic is worthy of attention is because the Gentile world also uses this story to forward the notion that Moses had to be white (Goat) because Miriam and Aaron spoke against his wife because she was black (Sheep). The use of the Greek word "Ethiopian" is utilized and distorted by the false interpretations of the world's scholars that publish the bible dictionaries, commentaries, encyclopedias, and various other so-called "bible tools."

Do you remember how Jethro testified of the EVER LIVING JAH, and how they ALL ate before JAH? Let's bear in mind that Jethro is the Priest of Midian and we can see him praising Jah and offering sacrifices to Jah of which JAH accepted. Jethro is not an Israelite. This lets me know that Jethro knows and knew of and about the Almighty Jah and his people. So the question comes to mind, "How did Jethro who is a priest of Midian know about the Almighty Jah and the burnt offerings that would be acceptable to JAH other than from Mosheah?" Well first and foremost, to answer that question we have to know exactly what and who is Midian?

Midian is a land and it is named after the man named "Midian", the descendants of Midian are called the "Midianites". So who exactly was "Midian?"


Believe it or not, Midian is a son of Abraham and Keturah. Remember that although Isaac was the chosen seed and the covenant was established in him, Abraham still taught all his sons about the Most High just as JAH commanded him to do and his children in return taught the ways of JAH to their children. Without a doubt we can be sure that Abraham's sons: Ishmael, Zimarn, Joktan, Medan, Midian, Ishbak and Shuah all knew of the Great and Holy One of Abraham because he taught them.

Of Abraham the Most High gives this testimony…


Genesis 28:19 - For I know him, that he will command his children and his household after him, and they shall keep the way of JAH to do justice and judgment; that JAH may bring upon Abraham that which he hat spoken of him.

I repeat, Midian was a son of Abraham of which Jethro, (Reul, Reguel) the Priest of MIDIAN, was a descendant.

Genesis 25:1-6 - [1] Then again Abraham took a wife, and her name was Keturah. [2] And she bare him Zimran, and Jokshan, and Medan, and Midian, and Ishbak, and Shuah. [3] And Jokshan begat Sheba, and Dedan. And the sons of Dedan were Asshurim, and Letushim, and Leummim. [4] And the sons of Midian; Ephah, and Epher, and Hanoch, and Abida, and Eldaah. All these were the children of Keturah. [5] And Abraham gave all that he had unto Isaac. [6] But unto the sons of the concubines, which Abraham had, Abraham gave gifts, and sent them away from Isaac his son, while he yet lived, eastward, unto the east country.

We can see from the previous verses where Midian comes from and that the Midianites lived in the East country. So even though Isaac was separated from the rest of Abraham's sons, Abraham still taught them the ways of JAH, how long they kept those ways is another story.

What is very vital is that Midian is the son of Abraham the Shemite. In other words, the Midianites are Shemites as well; We can't say for sure what Keturah's nationality was but one possibility is likely that the Keturah was a Canaanite although the Scriptures are not clear, I say this because Abraham lived in Canaan, but I also see that he didn't want his son to take a daughter of the Canaanites. So it's possible that Keturah was a Shemite, but again, the Scriptures aren't very clear on that. At any rate, the point is that the Midianites are not Cushites from Noah's Son Ham, and you will soon see why I'm making this point. But let's get back to the meeting of Jethro.

WHO WAS MOSHE'S ETHIOPIAN WIFE ?


After Jethro gives Mosheah advice how to judge the people he goes back to his land, leaving Zipporah and children with Mosheah.

Exodus 18:27- [27] And Moses let his father in law depart; and he went his way into his own land.

Now it is at this point, upon meeting Zipporah and company that Miriam and Aaron speak against Mosheah because of his wife, because she was not an Israelite. Many people assume that Moses is white because of this verse showing that Zipporah was an Ethiopian, and that this contention of Miriam and Aaraon was because she was black…not true at all, because Moses was black also,from another people group,BUT from the same area considered "Ethiopian"at that time,as were all Arabs; so the problem was in the fact that Zipporah was not an Israelite, not that she was black…


Numbers 12:1 - [1] And Miriam and Aaron spake against Moses because of the Ethiopian woman whom he had married: for he had married an Ethiopian woman.

Now did the translators of the Scriptures intend to mislead us with this translation to make it look like Moses had two wives, because Zipporah is identified as a Midianite earlier on and now there is seemingly another wife who was an Ethiopian. Or should we JUST LEARN to "DIG" a little deeper for truth? Mosheah had one wife, Zipporah the Ethiopian-Midianite or Black Midianite.

The world's scholars and their books try to say that the Greek word "Ethiopian" means "Cush" in Hebrew, which means Black. But this isn't the case when you look up all the times the word "Ethiopian" appears in the Scriptures.

As we know, the man Cush comes from Ham. So why use the word "Ethiopian" if Zipporah wasn't from the family of Cush?Is the reason is to mislead us?You decide! We know that the Gentile world {The Arian Brotherhood of BIGOTS } says that Mosheah is white or Caucasian and they try to say that Miriam spoke against Mosheah because he married a black woman, in particular an Ethiopian. But as earlier said, that is also false.

Moses is Black and Zipporah was Black and as said before, Miriam and Aaron never liked the fact that Zipporah wasn't an Israelite, and this would mean that Mosheah's children, who are not 100% Israelite, might take over the leadership when Mosheah dies, and this indeed wasn't acceptable to Miriam and Aaron. Keep in mind that Zipporah is also a daughter of a Priest so she is a believer in JAH as well and she must have been knowledgeable with spiritual understanding and that could have been a threat to Miriam, for Miriam was a prophetess as well.

So why use the term Ethiopia to describe Zipporah? The reason is this.

The Greek word Ethiopia or Ethiopian in the Scriptures shouldn't be translated back to Hebrew word Cush at all because this Greek word "Ethiopia" is a NOUN that was initially used by the Greek world ruling Gentiles to cover or describe ALL black people.

In other words, Ethiopia and ethiopian are not Hebrew words nor did they come from any Hebrew word!

Without a doubt those who engage in Hebraic translations will scoff at the notion that the word Ethiopia doesn't translate to the Hebrew to be "Cush". You see, indeed the Hebrew language is older and precedes the Greek language, in particular as it pertains to the translations of the Scriptures but the point I'm making is that there are many instances were there are Greek words of which were originated by the Greeks and even though Hebrew is older, it isn't the origin of the Greek word "Ethiopia", only that the word Ethiopia in Greek means "Black People" or "Black faced". ALL ARABS & JEWS ARE "BLACK OR DARK FACED PEOPLES",THIS IS WHAT IS MEANT! {SORRY ABOUT THAT "ARIANS",BUT FACTS ARE HISTORY,JESUS WAS A "DARK FACED MAN"}

But when you try to find the Hebrew equivalent, the word "Cush" which in Hebrew means "black" or "burnt," is used as the translation but it doesn't fit correctly at all because the way the word "Ethiopia(n" is used in Scriptures is clearly not used to refer to one tribe or nation, in particular the tribe or family of the Cushites…that is completely against the Scriptural use of the word Ethiopian. The Ethiopians that you read of in Scriptures have different nationalities, and don't even apply to the family of Cush…


If you try to translate Ethiopia back to the Hebrew to be Cush, then you are inaccurately limiting this Greek word to refer to one tribe of black people or one particular country, which was and is truly called Abyssinia (Abasha) and is wrongly called Ethiopia in these modern times of which was never to be applied to that one Country. Why do I say this?

ETHIOPIA IS ANCIENTLY THE HUGE CONTINENT THAT COVERS AFRICA AND THE MID-EAST EXTENDING OUT TO INDIA AND IT'S NOT SOME SMALL COUNTRY OR EMPIRE THAT HISTORY HAS FRAUDULENTLY FORWARDED.

AND IT CAN BE SAID THAT ETHIOPIA IS WHERE THE WORD UTOPIA COMES FROM, WHICH MEANS "PARADISE".

The black man Cush is just one son of the Black man Ham. What I'm try to say is that all of Ham's sons were black not just Cush and Cush's brother's aren't Cushites yet they were black or can be called "Ethiopian" or "Aithiops", of which this Greek word was used primarily to cover all types of Black or Dark skinned people groups in the WHOLE AREA. The same with Shem's descendants, they're Black too, yet we would never call them Cushites but you can say that Shemites are an "Ethiopian" people, meaning the Shemites are Black.

Yes Cush means "Black" but so do many other words in the Hebrew. When the world speaks of the Cushite Nimrod and his Ethiopian Empire the term Ethiopian Empire simply means the Black Empire, and because Cush means Black they try to trick you to think this Ethiopian Empire has a specific lineage and trace back to the Cushite family. The first world ruling empire after the flood was that of Babel of which Nimrod was the King of which was a Black World ruling Empire or we can say it was the first Ethiopian World Ruling empire….Black person and Ethiopian are the same thing.

Egypt was an ETHIOPIAN (Black) empire, so was Assyria, Babylon, Medes and Persians and of course the nation of Israel, of which we can say is the Ethiopian Israelite Empire that ruled the world in Solomon's times. All these nations are described by the Greeks as being Ethiopian or Black. Simple as that.

Therefore the Greek word Ethiopia is a SCRIPTURALLY sanctified name for the Black man's Land and the word Ethiopian can be used to cover ALL BLACK PEOPLE ON THE FACE OF THE EARTH.

The word "Ethiopia" shouldn't be used to refer to one particular family of black people, namely the Cushites.

I repeat: The word Ethiopia or Ethiopian are Greek terms that were used by the Greeks to refer to ANYONE who was Black OR DARK SKINNED. And remember, the whole land of Africa and the Mid-East was termed Ethiopia in ancient times…


Scripturally speaking, the Israelites were likened to and called Ethiopian, Egyptians were called Ethiopian, Canaanites were called Ethiopian, Cushites were called Ethiopian, Philistines were called Ethiopian and the Sabaens or those of Sheba were also called Ethiopians by the Greeks…


When you look at the translation of this word Ethiopian in Numbers 12, you will see that they WRONGLY translate it to be "Cush". Remember that Cush is a Hamite, and Zipporah was not a Cushite she was a Midianite, of whom are Shemites. Upon further investigation, you will notice in the Scriptures that there is a word "Cushan" which is used only once. This Scriptural word "Cushan" isn't referring to the Cushites.

ITS' CUSHAN - NOT CUSH

What is Cushan?

Well when you look up this word "Cushan" in a concordance we see that it appears only one time in the Scriptures. So the information is limited, however, the information in this one verse where "Cushan" is used shows us that Cushan is a word associated with Midian and doesn't have anything to do with the Cushites from Ham. Take note:

Habakkuk 3:7 - I saw the tents of Cushan in affliction: and the curtains of the land of Midian did tremble.

From the previous verse, we can see that "Cushan" is ALSO the "land of Midian." The word "tents" means "families, people, clan, tribe etc.". The word "Curtains" also means the same: families, people, clan, tribe etc.

So the tents of Cushan mean the "families of Cushan" and these families dwelt in the land of Midian and this is why the translators try to use the word Ethiopian to refer to Zipporah, because they either mistakenly or purposely used the word Ethiopian in a cunning fashion to distort this PLAIN truth. But we can turn a lemon into lemonade by understanding that the word Ethiopian can apply to a person of any black nation, and that the word obviously shouldn't be used to refer to one family of black people.

Cush, as said earlier, is a Hamite and not a Shemite. The Midianites are a Shemite people and are definitely not Hamites although they mixed and mingled with them for hundreds of years.

So you can see that the use of the word Ethiopian in regards to Mosheah's wife has nothing to do with the family of Ham or in particular with Cush….

This is another reason why I say that the Greek word "Ethiopian" can be used for both Hamites and Shemites, because it means "Black People". It is a serious error to say that the Greek word Ethiopia translates to Cush/Kuwsh.And remember:

There were no blond hair, blue eyed or of fair skinned people in the middle east until the invasion of the Europeans so we can't go by todays standards.

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